A) Intravenous terlipressin alone B) Band ligation of varices C) Injection sclerotherapy D) Balloon tamponade with a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube E) Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) Answer & Explanation Answer: B – Band ligation Endoscopic band ligation is the definitive treatment for actively bleeding oesophageal varices. Terlipressin is a bridge, not definitive. Sclerotherapy is second-line. Balloon tamponade is a temporary salvage measure. TIPS is for refractory bleeding after failed endoscopy. A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea, bloating, and weight loss. IgA-tissue transglutaminase antibodies are strongly positive. Duodenal biopsies show villous atrophy. She is started on a gluten-free diet but symptoms persist after 6 months. What is the most appropriate next investigation?
A) Repeat duodenal biopsy B) Capsule endoscopy C) HLA-DQ2/DQ8 genotyping D) Colonoscopy with ileal intubation E) Faecal calprotectin Answer & Explanation Answer: A – Repeat duodenal biopsy Persistent symptoms despite gluten-free diet for 6 months warrants repeat biopsy to check for ongoing villous atrophy (non-responsive coeliac disease). Capsule endoscopy may be for refractory type II coeliac disease but is not first-line. HLA genotyping is for diagnosis, not persistence. A 45-year-old man with a 3-day history of severe epigastric pain, nausea, and vomiting. Serum amylase is 1100 U/L. CT abdomen shows pancreatic necrosis involving 50% of the gland. He develops fever, hypotension, and worsening abdominal pain on day 8. What is the most appropriate next step? best of five mcqs for the gastroenterology sce pdf
A) Repeat upper endoscopy with duodenal biopsies B) CT colonography C) Capsule endoscopy D) Meckel’s scan E) Faecal immunochemical test (FIT) Answer & Explanation Answer: C – Capsule endoscopy Obscure GI bleeding/iron deficiency with normal bidirectional endoscopy – capsule endoscopy to visualise small bowel (angiodysplasia, tumours, Crohn’s). CT colonography for colon, not small bowel. FIT is for lower GI screening. A 55-year-old woman with primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is on ursodeoxycholic acid (UDCA). After 12 months, alkaline phosphatase remains 2.5× upper limit of normal. What is the most appropriate additional therapy? A) Intravenous terlipressin alone B) Band ligation of
A) Repeat ultrasound in 6 months B) Laparoscopic cholecystectomy C) Oral ursodeoxycholic acid D) CT abdomen with contrast E) Endoscopic ultrasound Answer & Explanation Answer: B – Laparoscopic cholecystectomy Gallbladder polyps ≥10 mm have significant malignant potential (adenomatous polyp vs early cancer). Cholecystectomy is indicated. Repeat US is for polyps A 50-year-old man with ulcerative colitis for 12 years (extensive disease) presents with a 3-week history of bloody diarrhoea. Flexible sigmoidoscopy shows moderate active proctosigmoiditis. Stool culture and C. difficile toxin are negative. He is not responding to oral mesalazine (4.8 g/day) and topical mesalazine. What is the most appropriate next step? Balloon tamponade is a temporary salvage measure